I’d like to know about properties that have been fully paid for and owned by the owner free and clear, so no mortgages. And then become delinquent only because the owner is not paying their property taxes.
1. How prevalent is this compared to all other types of properties that are foreclosed and auctioned?
2. What types of reasons does this occur that the owner is not or cannot pay their property taxes when they already were able to pay off their mortgage?
3. Does the delinquent homeowner’s debt mostly include the property taxes?







